What are "borders of a state" if not, metaphysical lines that indicate boundaries occupied through sovereignty?
The answer to that question depends on what "sovereignty" actually means.
If sovereignty is defined as exclusive control over a territory, then the crucial question of "how is that control justified?" still remains. Consider a mugger holding a wallet. If control alone were equal to legitimacy, then that mugger would be a "sovereign" over the wallet's contents.
Consider the example of an apartment complex that you raised. An apartment complex has boundaries because the land was first claimed, improved, or bought by someone, and every resident inside is there by consent (lease/purchase/contract). Each link in that chain of control is voluntary. If a dispute arises, the owner can point to a traceable line of consent all the way back to first use, and that is what makes the borders legitimate.
Now compare that to a state border. The state does not trade ownership back to voluntary acquisition. What it does is declare a line and assert that everyone inside is under its jurisdiction, whether they consent or not. To universalize that rule ("any group of people may draw a line around others and rule them"), every individual or group could go and do the same thing, which collapses sovereignty into universal self-ownership, which happens to be the very thing that the state denies.
So, normatively, "sovereignty" either reduces to ordinary property rights or contradicts them. There's no middle ground there.
Adults are responsible for the well-being of themselves, but that does not absolve them from consequences.
Correct, but "consequence" only carries ethical weight if the response itself is justified.
Consider a situation in which you defend yourself from a mugger. When you do that, the mugger faces consequences, but those consequences are restorative, they restore the violated boundary.
If someone is punished for actions that did not violate anyone's rights, that's aggression under a different name, not "consequence". The normative question is not whether someone is experiencing consequences, but whether the force behind those consequences can be justified under the same universal rule that binds everyone else.
And that's the difference between ethics and power. The former is about what can be justified for everyone without contradiction. The latter is just about who can get away with it. The thread is about the first, not the second.
Regarding borders, if you want to defend your point, then give premises that let a state rightfully bind non-consenting owners on land that the state doesn't own and make them reciprocal (rules that you would accept if your neighbor declares that
you are inside
his sovereignty). Otherwise you're either returning to property (which is my view) or asserting a double standard (which is contradictory)
Our species naturally assembles into hierarchies, with a dominant male or group of males. Every political system that has ever existed has been totalitarian. Political science is a lie, because it contradicts our very nature. Since power is consolidated ad Infinium, a fusion of the public and private sectors is expected... The best outcome humanity can hope for is for the interests of the powerful, for some inexplicable (probably, ideological) reason, to favor the interests of the powerless..
You're describing what you think
is likely. This thread is about testing what
ought to be and whether the ethic I stated in the OP is contradictory. Descriptivism doesn't touch that.
Description is not justification. From "hierarchies tend to form" it does not follow that aggression is justified. At most you have argued "people will violate the ethic", which is a sociology claim and not a refutation of the ethic.
At the same time, your own post is normative. To say that "the best outcome is X" is to voice a
should, which means you accept normativity. The question is whether your "might = right" surrogate can be universalized without contradiction. And it can't, for if consolidated power is the criterion of right, then any stronger coalition supersedes it tomorrow, making the notion of "right" hollow.
If you actually want to attack the position I outlined in OP, then show that the homesteading/consent rule cannot be universalized without generating conflict (in which case the rule would fail its own purpose of conflict avoidance) or show that denying exclusive control over first-use does not reduce to endorsing permanent conflict (which would undercut your own exclusive control over your body and your time that you need to argue here).
If you're only here to assert inevitability, then that's off scope. If you're asserting might makes right, say so plainly and defend it as a norm. In which case, go and resolve the problem that, by your own standard, your own claims have no standing the moment a stronger party says otherwise.