You are drifting exactly into the distinction I made all the way in the past in the OP. Normativity versus implementation versus historical analogy.
If your position is "the theory is fine, but I don't think it can be implemented among real people" then you have not refuted the ethical argument. You have seemingly conceded the normative point and moved to sociology, strategy, and predictions about human behavior. I agree those are real topics, but they're outside the scope of this thread.
More importantly, you have not actually substantiated your pessimistic implementation claim. Simply asserting that "real people" would not make it work is merely a prediction that itself requires evidence and explanation. What specific incentive structure fails? What mechanism necessarily produces the outcome you are expecting? Why would those same human flaws not create equal or worse problems under a state?
Until those questions are answered, "it won't work among real people" is just an intuition. Even if implementation were on topic for this discussion, the burden would still be on you to demonstrate the failure rather than merely assume it.
It is the closest to a real-world example we have.
That does not make it anarcho-capitalism.
Like I said, a near miss is still a miss. Just the fact that there are some parallels does not establish that it's identical. Or, just because you have four limbs, a spine, a nose, eyes, and ears, you go to the veterinarian because you have some parallels with a bulldog?
Medieval Iceland can be interesting in some respects as a partial historical analogue, but if the system contains centralized legislation, quasi-feudal chieftain structures, inherited/bought legal privileges, restricted trade, compulsory religious/legal impositions, and eventual submission to a crown, then it simply is not the system I outlined.
And before anyone gets "no true
socialism libertarianism", this is the basic point that, if an ethical/legal order is defined by
zero legitimate exceptions to property rights, then a system with institutional exceptions to property rights is not that thing.
There were communists before Marx too. An idea can exist before the term for the idea does.
Sure. But what matters is not that the word existed, but whether the relevant principles were actually instantiated.
If someone before Marx advocated for communal ownership, then I'd say it's fair to call them a proto-communist. But if someone merely has a few social or economic similarities to communism while retaining private property, markets, hierarchy, and inheritance, then it would be sloppy to call that communism.
Same here: Iceland had parallels, but it was not anarcho-capitalism.
While this is theoretically true, a rich foreigner who has the ability to control access to land, food, and communications probably could.
Your entire point stands and falls by whatever the word "control" means here.
Did he peacefully acquire ownership or contract claims? Then he is exercising control over his property, and others are not entitled to override that just because he is rich or foreign.
Did he acquire control through aggression, fraud, conquest, state privilege, or coercive monopoly? Then he is a rights-violator and may be resisted as such, just as you would defend yourself from a mugger.
You keep describing threats that only become anti-libertarian if they involve aggression and then treating them as if they refute libertarianism. They just don't. Either they fall under property/contract or they are aggression.
Like all theories, AnCap has issues when it comes into contact with reality. We have no real check on avarice, malice, or just plain stupidity.
Compared to what?
Certainly the state is not a check on avarice, malice, and stupidity. The state concentrates those very flaws and makes them orders of magnitude worse via legal immunity, tax funding, compulsory jurisdiction, and monopoly violence. As I have said multiple times before, if humans are flawed, then that is an argument against giving any class of humans legalized authority to rule everyone else.
Anarcho-capitalism does not require humans to become saints. It just says "thieves, murderers, fraudsters, invaders, and coercive monopolists do not magically become legitimate when they wear uniforms, win elections, write statutes, or call themselves 'public servants'".
I watched friends of mine die from heroin because I didn't have the right to force them to stop, though I wish I'd abandoned my principles so I could see them now.
That is tragic and not a refutation of the principle.
The fact that you deeply want to save someone does not by itself create ownership over their body. If they are unconscious, incapacitated, overdosing, or unable to consent, then rescue or medical intervention raises different question. But if a competent person chooses self-destruction, then the fact that the choice is horrible does not automatically give third parties a standing right to coercively control him.
That is one of the hard edges of self-ownership. You may hate the choice, you may plead, persuade, beg, threaten to disassociate, intervene socially, offer help, remove yourself, or structure your property around non-use. But "I love you and therefore I may own you for your own good" is just not a coherent ethical principle.
Rothbard in "Man, Economy, and State" (I think). The quote is "Anarchism is the purest form of Capitalism, and Capitalism is the purest form of Anarchism".
Even if I grant that quote (I'm not going to check, I'll just give you the benefit of the doubt here) it does not prove the claim I asked you to support.
You claimed that anarcho-capitalist philosophy treats "capitalism" as the be-all/end-all of society, in the sense of rootless financial profit maximization overriding nature, craftsmanship, hardship, culture, and every other value. "Anarchism is the purest form of capitalism" does not mean "money is the only value" nor "forests must be paved because profit". It means that capitalism, properly understood, is the social order of property, contract, free association, and non-aggression.
So the original challenge still stands. Show me one case of an anarcho-capitalist theorist saying that financial gain is the supreme end of human life and that non-economic values are invalid.
According to Rothbard, land becomes property when it is transformed. Merely sticking a fence around it would be a very generous description of "transformation".
As much as I deeply respect the man, Rothbard is not the final word on every detail of homesteading theory.
The issue is objective embordering / first appropriation (homesteading). An agent establishes a discernible boundary of control over an unowned rivalrous good and integrates it into a plan of action. That is something that can be satisfied by conservation.
A private forest reserve is not "doing nothing". Maintaining wilderness, excluding timber harvesters, preventing mining, preserving habitats, making boundaries, funding patrols, creating covenants, and managing access are all concrete uses of land.
If the argument you're making is that nature has value, I agree, but if you say "therefore I may coercively control land I do not own", no.
The issue is that in an anarchist system there are no guardrails that can be erected to prevent predatory practices, because making all other options to difficult or expensive is not a violation of the NAP.
Not once have I ever argued from a sloganized NAP. I outlined a property-assignment theory grounded in conflict avoidance.
Plus, "no state" does not mean "no guardrails". All it means is that no institution, regardless of what it is, gets a standing legal privilege to aggress. Guardrails may absolutely include ownership, contract, restitution, defense, insurance, reputation, arbitration, covenant communities, exclusion, boycott, and retaliatory or defensive force against aggression.
But what you don't get is a magic button that prevents all bad incentives while itself being immune to bad incentives. The state is not that button.
You are coming across (and I don't mean this as an insult) a lot like a young communist who insists that "eventually the government would no longer be required and true equality will be achieved".
Nah. Communism requires abolishing private property while still somehow avoiding conflict over rivalrous goods, and that is why it collapses into coercive administration.
The position I outlined does the opposite. It starts with the basic facts of rivalrous goods, possible conflict, volitional agents, and the need for coherent and objective property assignment. In no means does that require universal virtue, universal agreement, or a final solution to the question of human stupidity. It says that, when conflict occurs, there is a coherent standard for who is aggressing and who may defend.
If we could kill everyone and repopulate the world with liberty-minded individuals, that's a different story, but here in reality, we have to deal with retards.
No. In no way is killing everyone and repopulating the world the project, the ideal, or even remotely implied by the argument.
The existence of bad, stupid, malicious, addicted, irrational, or predatory people does not refute libertarian ethics. It is
precisely why conflict-resolution principles matter.
my "perfect" system will never be introduced, and probably isn't perfect anyway.
What kind of downright weird standard is the demand that a social system be "perfect" before it can be taken seriously?
States are not perfect, neither are democracies, markets, families, churches, courts, communities, nor human beings. Are you seriously going to say that libertarian theory fails because it supposedly cannot eliminate every vice, tragedy, or bad decision? If so, then I ask you to apply that ridiculous standard universally. To me the relevant question is whether the system's principles are coherent and whether it handles inevitable human imperfections better than the alternatives.
The question is not "can we create a world with no bad people?", but, "when people act, what standard identifies aggression, defense, ownership, restitution, and legitimate response without contradiction?"
That is the question this thread is about.
Arguments based upon objective morality are spooks. At the end of the day society is based upon a group of like minded people going “I don’t like X and I’m willing to kill you over it” and that’s perfectly fine.
If your position is merely "I personally don't care and I'm willing to use force", then there is nothing to discuss.