- Registrado
- 19 de Ene, 2018
EDIT: It looks like Washington has a $125K homestead exemption which says it applies to your primary residence, so he won't be forced to sell the WA condo. $125K refers to the amount of equity he has in it, not its value. He doesn't have anywhere close to that much equity in it.
Ok, but if he's not forced to sell the WA residence, where is the money going to come from? The CT condo is his only other major asset, and it's underwater on its mortgage. The WA condo is clearly the answer to collecting on debts, and the CT condo is habitable.
Is this a case where whoever was administering the bankruptcy would remind him that while he doesn't technically have to sell the property, he would achieve maximum tardation by not doing so?