Well i think it's fair to say that if you can prove a source of morals to be true then that is ultimately the correct set of morals.
Proving a source of morality would still leave the same step open.
For instance, suppose it were proven that human flourishing is a real feature of the world, that would establish a fact about reality. What still needs explanation is why that fact generates an obligation.
In other words, fact about reality -> ??? -> moral obligation
And on the moral law being hypocritical it still shows some sort of emotional reaction deep within i think that points to something more, even in a team of thieves, even if you expected to be robbed you'd still be upset.
Which shows something about human psychology. But it does not yet explain why harming someone would be morally wrong rather than simply something they don't like.
What is your own answer to this question? And you don't include the predecessor question of, "are moral rules binding?" Why?
The reason I asked what
makes a moral rule binding rather whether there are any binding ones is because most moral language already treats certain claims that way.
For example, when people say "rape is wrong", the claim is usually presented as categorical rather than conditional on someone's preferences or goals. The thread is about examining what would make that kind of claim universally binding.
As for my own answer, I think that some norms can be binding in a stronger sense than prudential advice or social convention. My view is that such rules ultimately reflect constraints built into the structure of the world rather than authority, incentives, or shared feelings.
As a side note, you are too quick to dismiss comments or perspectives as moral nihilism or relativism and don't reckon with them.
The point is simply that subjectivism and nihilism answer the question by denying that moral rules have that kind of binding force at all. Which is a coherent stance, but it resolves the issue by removing the category under examination. Since both have already been brought up in the thread, further examining them is unproductive for the discussion.
Your comments also tend to lump all levels of "morals" together in the same tier of importance; is that your view?
No. The discussion here is specifically about rules that are presented as categorically binding. Clearly, things like etiquette or prudence or self-help advice exist, but those are not normally treated as moral prohibitions/obligations in the same sense claims like "rape is wrong" are treated.
The alternative to objective, known, iron-ribbed universal truth(s) is not inherently the absence of any truth, and not every moral prescriptive is of the same criticality.
True, some norms regulate trivial matters. But other norms regulate things like interpersonal conflicts. The latter category is where the question of bindingness becomes serious.
What is the import of an existential "binding" nature of specific morals?
The difference is the distinction between advice and obligation. If a rule is merely useful, socially approved, or likely to produce good outcomes, then violating the rule may be unwise or unpopular. But if it is genuinely normatively binding, then violating it is not just imprudent, but wrongful.
What kinds of things would you accept as features of reality?
Anything that actually obtains in the real world.
For example, physical structures, biological facts, properties of agents, relations between actions and outcomes, social relations between persons, and so on.
The point of the question is not to restrict the category in advance, but simply that, if a genuine moral obligation supposedly exists, then it must ultimately be grounded in some feature of reality, rather than merely in how people define words.
The step still needs explanation; feature of reality -> ??? -> moral obligation
Okay, don't drop terms without any explanation for the reader.
Pascal's wager is a well-known argument in philosophy of religion. In simple terms, it goes roughly like this:
If God exists and you believe in God, the payoff is infinite (salvation).
If God exists and you don't believe, the loss is infinite.
If God doesn't exist, the costs/benefits of belief are finite either way.
So, given that uncertainty, Pascal argues that believing in God is the rational or safer bet because of the higher expected payoff.
It's not an answer to the question of the thread because it treats religious commitment as a prudential gamble, rather than something that is proven true.