What makes a moral rule actually binding? - Discuss the ethics of ethics

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A caution about how the word neighbor is used: neighbor in Hebrew translates to "rhea" and it's a very... nuanced concept, to put it nicely.

It's not about nearness or sharing a physical community. It's an in-group word that denotes peoples who are not Zara, meaning strange.
There's rheaya which is wife, but rhea is traditionally friend (in English it's translated as neighbour). Still the point of the story is moral contract which is the basis of all moral rules.
 
Consider the heart example you gave. Organs can perform their biological function well, or they can do it poorly. A heart that fails to pump blood is defective relative to that function. That descriptive fact, however, does not yet yield moral normativity.
My point here was that the directed nature of the telos and the normative value are one and the same. The “goodness” of the flourishing heart is inseparable from the nature of the flourishing heart. The descriptive account of the heart is parallel to this claim. The nature of the heart (and its “goodness”) would still exist without our recognition/description of it.
 
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There's rheaya which is wife, but rhea is traditionally friend (in English it's translated as neighbour). Still the point of the story is moral contract which is the basis of all moral rules.
Rhea means neighbor, in Greek it translates to Pleison, which is your literal neighbor, but previous Old Testament uses refer to Jews and specific groups in the Levant. For example take the Samaritans, a Samaritan wasn't considered rhea but he wasn't zara either. He wasn't totally foreign. He wasn't a stranger.

Ra'ah
may be how modern Hebrew expresses association with, as in your buddy, comrade or friend, but that's not how it's used in any of the Old Testament books, and it was translated both in the Septuaginta and the Gospels as Pleison, despite Jesus expanding it's use (because unlike Jews, He actually loves Mankind)

And tbh this is why people hate Jews. You're obfuscating modern use, something that is pertinent to the most important thing our Lord ever said. And you're using bad reasoning that you know is wrong, because Jew cannot help but be a malicious and seditious actor, as it's the only way the Jew can make room for himself in the world where he's disinherited by the Lord. This is something even secular Biblical scholars agree on, but I suppose I'm suppose to think "let me trust some Jew instead".

Ἀγαπήσεις τὸν πλησίον σου
 
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Nor would it negate that God can send him to hell.

I don't particularly believe in the Indian religious concept of karma. However, if it's real, I am still subjected to it.
That does not make sense. If he does not believe in Hell, what power would that consequence have?
I appreciate your questions and love intellectual discussion, but this is becoming way beyond the scope of a forum thread and my ability to respond timely, as well as review and cite relevant works. I only had a couple hours to kill waiting for some client work to come in but now I'm swamped.
I want to hear this too.
 
Nothing from a moral standpoint will ever make a rule "binding".

You don't really have a rule if you are only basing it on morals.

Morals are pretty much the explanation as to why we may or may not do something, the truly "binding" part are the consequences.
Then you're using the word "binding" in a different sense than the one the thread is about. A person who avoids committing murder because they fear a prison stint is not refraining because murder is morally wrong, but because they don't want the consequences.



It does! You just don't want to accept my answer.

Belief in religion, belief in the getting to heaven is a worthwhile goal and belief that following these rules will get them to heaven is what makes these rules binding. It has absolutely nothing to do with authority, which you are annoyingly fixated on.

If you're going to say that doesn't make it binding then you have to admit that you're being pedantic by giving a new definition to the word binding.

It feels like you're trying to stay one step ahead of everyone you're discussing this with by continuing to reframe what we're actually talking about.

I have edited this post to make it less rude.
I'm not introducing a new definition of "binding". Rather, I am using the ordinary sense that is implied by most moral claims.
Like I said, when someone says "murder is wrong", then what they mean typically isn't "murder is wrong if you personally want to go to heaven". They present the rule "murder is wrong" as something that a person ought not do, regardless of their individual goals.
And what you're describing is different. Under your structure, the rule depends on a prior goal (reaching heaven). If someone accepts that goal, then following the rules becomes a strategy for achieving it. But if someone doesn't care about heaven, then the rule loses its force for them under that framework, which makes the rule conditional on the goal, rather than binding in the stronger sense that moral claims are usually presented.



Self-interest is something that can explain why someone might follow a rule, but it makes the rule conditional.
If following the rule serves your interests, you follow it. If violating the rule serves your interests, you violate it.
Under that structure, moral rules are strategies rather than binding rules.



That's a statement of a reciprocity rule. The question in the thread is not whether such rules have been formulated before, but what makes them binding in the first place.
If the answer is that they are binding because a god commands them, then the issue becomes what makes that command binding rather than merely asserted.
If the answer is that they are binding because reciprocity is a good thing, then the question is "what makes reciprocity itself binding?"



OP discovers moral relativism.
Nay; OP asks what makes a moral rule binding in the first place.
And "moral relativism" is, at most, a concession that no universal grounding is being supplied.
That is, if you just want to make the point that morality is relative, then you're confirming the problem I raised in the thread.



My point here was that the directed nature of the telos and the normative value are one and the same. The “goodness” of the flourishing heart is inseparable from the nature of the flourishing heart. The descriptive account of the heart is parallel to this claim. The nature of the heart (and its “goodness”) and its purpose would still exist without our recognition/description of it.
Yup, standard neo-Aristotelianism, telos and goodness are identical. In other words, a thing has a function (telos), fulfilling that function is good, therefore the normativity is already contained in the description.
The problem is that this kind of evaluation does not yet yield a moral obligation.
For instance, a knife that fails to cut is a bad knife relative to its function. But nothing morally wrong happens when someone uses a dull knife. The evaluation is about how well the object performs its function.
And the same issue happens when the argument is moved from organs to persons. Even if I grant that humans have a natural telos of flourishing, the claim that a person ought to pursue that flourishing is an additional step. And my question in this thread (what makes that goal itself binding?) is exactly that step



Send me a DM and we can discuss this at a slower pace.
I want to hear this too.
Just because this is a KF thread doesn't mean it's short lived. If we're still alive in 2 years and that's when I get a new reply notif, I'll reply to it.
As in, take all the time you need
 
Rhea means neighbor, in Greek it translates to Pleison, which is your literal neighbor, but previous Old Testament uses refer to Jews and specific groups in the Levant. For example take the Samaritans, a Samaritan wasn't considered rhea but he wasn't zara either. He wasn't totally foreign. He wasn't a stranger.

Ra'ah
may be how modern Hebrew expresses association with, as in your buddy, comrade or friend, but that's not how it's used in any of the Old Testament books, and it was translated both in the Septuaginta and the Gospels as Pleison, despite Jesus expanding it's use (because unlike Jews, He actually loves Mankind)

And tbh this is why people hate Jews. You're obfuscating with modern use something that is pertinent to the most important thing our Lord ever said. And you're using bad reasoning that you know is wrong, because Jew cannot help but be a malicious and seditious actor.
Ἀγαπήσεις τὸν πλησίον σου
That's absolutely retarded take, it's like I'll take a Latin proverb, translate to English and then start a rant on Christians obfuscating it because the meaning didn't stay the same for over a millennia.
"what makes reciprocity itself binding?"
Because individuals that don't reciprocate tend to find themselves hanged or exiled from the rest of society. Even in an African tribe if you kill someone, steal or bed another's wife you will get killed if you get found out.
 
Just because this is a KF thread doesn't mean it's short lived. If we're still alive in 2 years and that's when I get a new reply notif, I'll reply to it.
As in, take all the time you need
There are some penalties for necroing here, but I'll do my best to keep it active.

More than anything I wanted to avoid people dropping in with their 30-second takes that would derail the discussion.

I want to hear this too.
You are more than welcome to share your thoughts as well, nobody who admires classic women is unwelcome. Still wish you would have Olivia de Havilland as a PFP some time.
 
That's absolutely retarded take, it's like I'll take a Latin proverb, translate to English and then start a rant on Christians obfuscating it because the meaning didn't stay the same for over a millennia.
I'm not taking a Latin proverb idiot, and English was never involved in any of this process.

I'm taking something your people said, their use of that word in the Gospels in Greek, and comparing it against the Old Testament uses which include Greek and Hebrew, to see how it's use actually developed from 1 Maccabees until Jesus' arrival. The use of almost all terms greatly expanded in their philosophy, while Judea waited for the Successor to Simon. Modern reconstructed Hebrew is 100% impertinent to understanding the language of the Prophets. In fact, you've proven to me just now that it has less value than zero, as it obviously has confused you and muddied your understanding.

It's called exegesis.
 
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If a rule is binding because a god commands it, then the rule depends entirely on the command. If god now comes and says "eating pizza is forbidden from now on", the moral rule regarding eating pizza then becomes different
Service to one's master, aka the god you choose, is the moral imperative, not the specifics of the command. Despite all the nonsense that pseudointellectual atheists have been trying to propagandize for far too long, every human being that has ever existed will be in servitude towards higher powers. We have been blessed with free will to choose which power, but every decision you make ultimately is a decision of who you serve. This is why it's called supernatural - things like love, hate, forgiveness, wrath, etc. are within our ability to choose, but they are not our nature, as we have the ability to control them and even act against the impulses they create. We're not, say, dogs, pre-programmed to be enslaved to our instinct, we have free will to choose to act on pre-programming or not.

Now if, instead, the command is binding because it reflects something that's good or right independently of god, then the grounding lies in that independent structure, rather than in the command itself
The person you replied to was clearly coming at it from a Christian perspective, and in that perspective, literally everything good stems from God's love, which is His penultimate defining quality. Nothing good/right can exist 'independently' of Him. You're trying to come up with an edge case that breaks the rules crafted by an intellect magnitudes of order more powerful than any human's, which is always a path to madness.
 
That does not make sense. If he does not believe in Hell, what power would that consequence have?
Well it's basic cause and effect. His soul would burn forever and that would certainly be the definition of power of consequence.
Like I said, when someone says "murder is wrong", then what they mean typically isn't "murder is wrong if you personally want to go to heaven".
YES THEY ARE. I don't know how you invented this narrative that anyone is saying otherwise.
And what you're describing is different.
How?
Under your structure, the rule depends on a prior goal (reaching heaven). If someone accepts that goal, then following the rules becomes a strategy for achieving it. But if someone doesn't care about heaven, then the rule loses its force for them under that framework, which makes the rule conditional on the goal, rather than binding in the stronger sense that moral claims are usually presented.
Reality is not my possession, so it's not "my structure."

Besides that, yeah. I don't understand on what grounds you're arguing with me. You're just telling me what I'm saying. Yes, that's what I'm saying.

Religious belief is the only driving force behind any form of human morality. Non-religious people who experience negative outcomes for their actions, in their minds, are only restricted only by social and legal pressure if they are restricted at all.

If you could maybe distill your argument into one paragraph as I just did my paragraph above, it would really help me to understand what you're trying to get at, if you're trying to get at anything.
 
More than anything I wanted to avoid people dropping in with their 30-second takes that would derail the discussion.
Just don't acknowledge them lol



Those are both true.
... what?
A strategy is conditional. You follow a strategy if it helps achieve some goal.
A binding strategy is not conditional on a goal.
If following a rule depends on whether it serves someone's interests, then it is a strategy. If it applies regardless of someone's interests or goals, then it is binding.
The two are mutually exclusive.



Service to one's master, aka the god you choose, is the moral imperative, not the specifics of the command. Despite all the nonsense that pseudointellectual atheists have been trying to propagandize for far too long, every human being that has ever existed will be in servitude towards higher powers. We have been blessed with free will to choose which power, but every decision you make ultimately is a decision of who you serve. This is why it's called supernatural - things like love, hate, forgiveness, wrath, etc. are within our ability to choose, but they are not our nature, as we have the ability to control them and even act against the impulses they create. We're not, say, dogs, pre-programmed to be enslaved to our instinct, we have free will to choose to act on pre-programming or not.


The person you replied to was clearly coming at it from a Christian perspective, and in that perspective, literally everything good stems from God's love, which is his penultimate defining quality. Nothing good/right can exist 'independently' of Him. You're trying to come up with an edge case that breaks the rules crafted by an intellect magnitudes of order more powerful than any human's, which is always a path to madness.
Hmmmn. That shifts the structure a bit, but doesn't resolve the issue.
Like, saying that morality consists of serving a master explains how someone might frame their ethical life, but it still leaves the question open: what makes that service morally binding in the first place?
If someone says that moral rules bind because they come from God, then bindingness lies in the command itself. But if the answer is simply that God is the source of all goodness, then the grounding has been asserted rather than explained.
The dilemma remains as before. Either the command itself makes the rule binding, in which case morality depends entirely on command, or the command reflects something that is already binding independently of it.
And the thread is about that grounding step.



YES THEY ARE. I don't know how you invented this narrative that anyone is saying otherwise.
If that were the case, then it would mean that most moral language would be systematically misdescribed.
Normally, when people say things like "murder is wrong", they present that claim as categorical rather than conditional.
If you could maybe distill your argument into one paragraph as I just did my paragraph above, it would really help me to understand what you're trying to get at, if you're trying to get at anything.
Most, if not all, moral philosophies present their rules as binding that stronger categorical sense. When someone says "murder is wrong", they typically mean that a person ought not to murder. That is a stronger claim than merely saying "murder is punished" or "murder is socially condemned" or "murder is contrary to someone's personal goals".
What many answers in the thread so far have explained instead is things like enforcement, incentives, psychology, or religious belief. All of these can explain why people follow rules, but they leave open the question of what makes the rule itself morally binding in the first place.
The issue I'm pointing to is the grounding step of what makes a moral rule something that a person actually ought to follow, rather than simply something they are rewarded for following / punished for violating.
 
Like, saying that morality consists of serving a master explains how someone might frame their ethical life, but it still leaves the question open: what makes that service morally binding in the first place?
The binding is only crafted in the action itself. The fact that you chose to do something creates the moral binding, because you are and will be held responsible for your choices. It sounds like you're trying to determine what defines a moral choice as good or bad, which is more in the realm of ethics, but the answer for anyone who is not a prideful contrarian is always going to be Christianity - most people just aren't far enough along on their journey, and there exists an inconceivable amount of propaganda and gaslighting to try and distract you from that truth. It's easily the most researched and reliable academic understanding of the supernatural and the pondering of the infinite.

You're asking for an answer to the infinite, which is ultimately unknowable and neither I nor anyone else on the planet is ever going to be able to answer that for you, but Christianity is the path that will get you the furthest.
 
. Still wish you would have Olivia de Havilland as a PFP some time.
I'll do that next time for you.

You're asking for an answer to the infinite, which is ultimately unknowable and neither I nor anyone else on the planet is ever going to be able to answer that for you, but Christianity is the path that will get you the furthest.
Is everybody here just saying that morality is founded on Christianity?
 
Is everybody here just saying that morality is founded on Christianity?
  • Is there a problem if that is the case?
  • Christianity doesn't 'define' morality, it attempts to identify it and disseminate its findings throughout the Body of Christ. Every attempt at defining morality is going to fail (the famous non-definition of pornography for example) because our intellects are insufficient to define the infinite. Many institutions have tried to identify morality, and any objective comparative analysis of these institutions is always going to single out Christianity as by far the best at it.
 
The binding is only crafted in the action itself.
That doesn't actually solve the issue. If choosing an action creates the moral binding, then any action becomes binding simply because someone chose it. Choosing to help someone would make helping binding, but choosing to harm someone would also make harming binding. That collapses the concept of moral obligation into mere choice.
The question in the thread is what makes a rule morally binding before someone chooses to follow or violate it. Otherwise, the rule does not guide the action, rather the action creates the rule.



But the rule holds whether you like it or not, and, whether you see it or don't.
You're speaking in tongues. What is the rule and what makes it binding? And if it holds whether I see it or not, then the question becomes what makes it hold in the first place.



On a meta note, because the discussion has been quite lively so far
Most answers so far have explained things like where moral rules come from (religion, culture, the state) or why people follow them (punishment, social pressure, self-interest)
Those are interesting explanations, but they address a different question. The question I posed is what makes a rule normatively binding in the first place

One thing that irks me a bit is that some replies ended up landing in some form of moral nihilism, basically concluding that nothing makes moral rules binding and that the only real constraint on behavior is consequences. Come on, thousands of years of moral philosophy have been attempts to avoid exactly that conclusion. The fact that those attempts haven't succeeded so far doesn't mean the problem itself is unsolvable.

On a more positive note, I'm slightly surprised nobody has tried invoking Kant, Rawls, or social contract theory yet. I mean that as a compliment.
 
Morality is applied biology + communal religious reinforcement. Capacity and application. You have to have a belief there is something larger and grander than yourself to have a moral code. Otherwise all decisions are simple "does this action benefit me?" thinking. If the individual has neither the moral code isn't binding because there's nothing within the individual himself preventing amoral action.
 
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