Is "Cultural Marxism" Real? - Actual phenomenon, or meaningless buzzword?

Is "Cultural Marxism" actually a thing?

  • Yes

  • No


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Watching one of Nick Rekieta's streams where he bemoaned the loss of 80's and 90's style excessive nudity, I think that the modern woke cultural movement is partly just fin de siecle, signs of the times, "haha remember when tv was woke" and 30 year old sad zoomers remembering the good old days of the '10s and trying to make a steven universe reboot "updated" to watch with gen alpha, who will likely grow up in a multipolar world of crises in which people have grown wiser about the low quality of internet attention and in which having enough for now is good enough.

But yes there is a top-down culturally driven woke movement and it is fucking retarded
 
There were a few times that Marx and Engels extended class warfare to other aspects like race and nationality.

“The classes and the races, too weak to master the new conditions of life, must give way”

“Among all the nations and petty ethnic groups of Austria there are only three which have been the carriers of progress, which have played an active role in history and which still retain their vitality-the Germans, the Poles and the Magyars. For this reason they are now revolutionary. The chief mission of all the other races and peoples-large and small-is to perish in the revolutionary holocaust.”

And they both cheered on the USA when they conquered Mexican lands, and Great Britain for subjugating India.

So the racial conflict that the left attempts to stir up would at least be seen as compatible with Marxism.

They wanted to abolish the family, so queer activists would be seen as useful to that. But Marx hated gays, and so has every other communist regime known to man, so they're just useful idiots.

Even if cultural Marxism weren't actually a thing, it still makes sense that all of these things would be a part of western communist movements, even if they're just useful idiots who will be lined up against the wall if they saw their revolution to its end.
 
cultural marxism.png
 
"Cultural Marxism" refers to pitting people against each other by divvying them up into groups of "oppressor" and "oppressed" classes like Marx did with economics with the bourgeoisie and proletariat. You've got "heterosexual" which is the oppressor class and "homosexual" the oppressed class. "Men" the oppressor class and "women" the oppressed class. "White people" the oppressor class and "minorities" the oppressed class. And so on, you get the picture. It's basically taking Marx's playbook for economics and applying it across various socio-cultural lines to divvy up a population and set them against the preferred groups.

Why do this? To destabilize nations so they become ripe for revolution and the implementation of communism. Now is every SJW who teaches these oppressor and oppressed dialectics identify as a "cultural marxist" or even recognize they're doing this? No, but it is an apt description of what they're doing whether or not it's intentional.
 
There were a few times that Marx and Engels extended class warfare to other aspects like race and nationality.

The first citation is from here and it needs huge contextualization. It is an opinion piece of St. Karl addressing the matter of emigration from Ireland and Britain. In it, he makes the case that, unlike in antiquity where low productive power required a large population to offset it, in capitalist societies high productive power ended up requiring lesser populations as the mechanization of agriculture and the handicrafts made large traditional sections of the population redundant, requiring them to adapt into wage slavery.
Thus, "The classes and the races, too weak to master the new conditions of life" that "must give way" were, contextualized to the article, the "Scotch clansman. the Irish cottier and tenant, the English yeoman, the hand-loom weaver" etc etc, all of whom decayed due to emigration into industrial centers to enlarge the ranks of the industrial proletariat or just plain bankruptcy when faced with industrial competition.
In due time, he said, mechanization would have wiped out more classes like landlords and cotton lords.
This is what it means: the capacity of capitalism to uproot people from their land and their traditional occupations, to turn them into new proletarians.

The second citation (a partial one) is by Engels and once again it refers to a specific situation. The piece was written in 1848 and it referred in particular to the Spring of Nations in Europe, when the bourgeoisies of many countries revolted against the autocracies in Europe.
In the Austrian Empire the Germans, the Poles and the Hungarians demanded a constitution (not love of liberty, just because their own peculiar interpretations of freedom of speech, press, assembly etc allowed them the breathing room to overthrow the aristocracies or anyway make them insignificant, as it happened under every constitutional monarchy under the sun), you can look that shit up, while more backwards peoples like Croats, Serbs, Transylvanian Saxons, Szekelis etc allied themselves with the Habsburgs, provided they kept their autonomy.


And they both cheered on the USA when they conquered Mexican lands, and Great Britain for subjugating India.

If you want a piece on India, you can read this. It's far from a cheer, in fact Karl here states that

the misery inflicted by the British on Hindostan is of an essentially different and infinitely more intensive kind than all Hindostan had to suffer before. I do not allude to European despotism, planted upon Asiatic despotism, by the British East India Company, forming a more monstrous combination than any of the divine monsters startling us in the Temple of Salsette[7].

All the civil wars, invasions, revolutions, conquests, famines, strangely complex, rapid, and destructive as the successive action in Hindostan may appear, did not go deeper than its surface. England has broken down the entire framework of Indian society, without any symptoms of reconstitution yet appearing. This loss of his old world, with no gain of a new one, imparts a particular kind of melancholy to the present misery of the Hindoo, and separates Hindostan, ruled by Britain, from all its ancient traditions, and from the whole of its past history.


Ok, so where's the cheer? In which way did he see British colonialism as positive?
Because, by uprooting traditional life, just as it happened in Europe, by the way, as I've just shown you with the piece on emigration, British capitalism was, in spite of being fueled by the

vilest interests

was still a force for progress, just as it was in Europe.
Mughal India had the highest geedeepee before British colonization, but who in his right mind could argue that modern Indian industry and all of its giants, think Tata Steel, owes its existence to Britain?
And it was Indian industry itself, the conditions that created it, that paved the way for India's independence. Not because Britain conceded it out of kindness, it fought a war of independence and decades of political struggle imprisoning people left and right and beating up protesters with sticks, but because it created that class of people that, through independence, would have received its own breathing room to further develop, to exploit and monopolize India's market once Britain was gone.


They wanted to abolish the family, so queer activists would be seen as useful to that. But Marx hated gays, and so has every other communist regime known to man, so they're just useful idiots.

"The family" doesn't exist, it's an umbrella term for different kinds of social organizations. The family you're used to, the nuclear family, is two centuries old at best and it is itself the product of capitalist relations, the ones founded on the uprooting of every traditional norm and custom.
The idea that a household is made only of mother, father and children is itself as anti-traditional as it gets when throughout our history we had gentes, extended families, clans and so on.
To live with your mother and even your grandparents and bring your wife and children under the same roof was the norm until two centuries ago (and until even less in Italy where I live), that's a different kind of familiar organization, it isn't a nuclear family. When someone makes fun of 30 year olds for living with their parents, he's being anti-traditional because it's been the norm for most of human history.

The communists don't need nor even want to abolish "the family", by which we mean here the nuclear family, it's abolishing itself as we speak as wives and husbands are sent to work and after their nine to fives don't have the slightest time and/or will to think of each other or the children. Capitalism itself is as anti-family as it gets, it absorbs people so much in their jobs and careers that it allows no time for personal or familiar cultivation.
So, what remains of the family in these circumstances? It's stripped down just to making children, the future hands and minds who will operate machines, stand behind computers doing only God knows what kind of bs job, sell shit and so on. Children are only valued as future workers, and even then we have reached a stage so horrible that, consumed by their work, couples can't even be fucked with making children, so congratulations capitalism you haven't just destroyed traditional life but you doomed the Species, capital s, to extinction.
I won't even address homo couples or whatever because, in reality, they simply don't count.

Communist society will not have a nuclear family (I reiterate: not something eternal, the family institution has constantly changed throughout history) because the communists intend to abolish it, but because by then capitalism itself will have destroyed it.
What kind of family a communist one will be I have no idea, but take in consideration the fact that communism emerges from the ruins of this world, and this is a godless world where marriage doesn't last and children spend less and less significant time with their parents.
 
Because I'm old, I own this book. It's weirdly hard to formulate a search for if you don't know who wrote it.

"Cultural Marxism"—earlier known as "cultural theory," later mostly as various "critical [fill-in-the-blank]s"—is what the dominant ideology in Anglosphere humanities called itself in the '80s and '90s. That's where the term comes from. From itself. I was there. It was already current_year.

The internet has lies on it and important things missing from it.
 
I do though. The new communist families were already tested by the Kibbutz movement in Israel, hippie communes and recently rationalist polycules in Calilfornia. It generally doesn't work except for a tiny minority of freaks.

And you know wrong. Of these three, only the kibbutz provides (provided, not anymore. Most of the old system is dead since they transitioned into private enterprises engaging in commercial production) elements of what the communist family looks like, specifically pertaining the rearing of children.
Not even the whole picture, just pertaining the children.
In a communist society, children would realistically be educated by society as a whole, not in schools and not by their parents only. "Hey Joe, show me how to fix this engine", and Joe would show you, provided he has the patience for it.
It would also be the death of titles and specializations.

Polycules, on the other hand, are the most distant to the realistic outcome. I want to quote you a few passages from Engels' Origins of the Family, Chapter 2, in which some brainstorming is attempted starting from an analysis of historical and then-contemporary models.

We are now approaching a social revolution in which the economic foundations of monogamy as they have existed hitherto will disappear just as surely as those of its complement-prostitution. Monogamy arose from the concentration of considerable wealth in the hands of a single individual – a man – and from the need to bequeath this wealth to the children of that man and of no other. For this purpose, the monogamy of the woman was required, not that of the man, so this monogamy of the woman did not in any way interfere with open or concealed polygamy on the part of the man. But by transforming by far the greater portion, at any rate, of permanent, heritable wealth – the means of production – into social property, the coming social revolution will reduce to a minimum all this anxiety about bequeathing and inheriting. Having arisen from economic causes, will monogamy then disappear when these causes disappear?


One might answer, not without reason: far from disappearing, it will, on the contrary, be realized completely. For with the transformation of the means of production into social property there will disappear also wage-labor, the proletariat, and therefore the necessity for a certain – statistically calculable – number of women to surrender themselves for money. Prostitution disappears; monogamy, instead of collapsing, at last becomes a reality – also for men.


In any case, therefore, the position of men will be very much altered. But the position of women, of all women, also undergoes significant change. With the transfer of the means of production into common ownership, the single family ceases to be the economic unit of society. Private housekeeping is transformed into a social industry. The care and education of the children becomes a public affair; society looks after all children alike, whether they are legitimate or not. This removes all the anxiety about the “consequences,” which today is the most essential social – moral as well as economic – factor that prevents a girl from giving herself completely to the man she loves. Will not that suffice to bring about the gradual growth of unconstrained sexual intercourse and with it a more tolerant public opinion in regard to a maiden’s honor and a woman’s shame? And, finally, have we not seen that in the modern world monogamy and prostitution are indeed contradictions, but inseparable contradictions, poles of the same state of society? Can prostitution disappear without dragging monogamy with it into the abyss?


Here a new element comes into play, an element which, at the time when monogamy was developing, existed at most in germ: individual sex-love.

After going for a few paragraphs on the definition of sex-love (not merely erotic, but the pure kind, that includes physical and romantic/interpersonal attraction) we finally get to more brainstorming.

Full freedom of marriage can therefore only be generally established when the abolition of capitalist production and of the property relations created by it has removed all the accompanying economic considerations which still exert such a powerful influence on the choice of a marriage partner. For then there is no other motive left except mutual inclination.


And as sexual love is by its nature exclusive – although at present this exclusiveness is fully realized only in the woman – the marriage based on sexual love is by its nature individual marriage. We have seen how right Bachofen was in regarding the advance from group marriage to individual marriage as primarily due to the women. Only the step from pairing marriage to monogamy can be put down to the credit of the men, and historically the essence of this was to make the position of the women worse and the infidelities of the men easier. If now the economic considerations also disappear which made women put up with the habitual infidelity of their husbands – concern for their own means of existence and still more for their children’s future – then, according to all previous experience, the equality of woman thereby achieved will tend infinitely more to make men really monogamous than to make women polyandrous.


But what will quite certainly disappear from monogamy are all the features stamped upon it through its origin in property relations; these are, in the first place, supremacy of the man, and, secondly, indissolubility. The supremacy of the man in marriage is the simple consequence of his economic supremacy, and with the abolition of the latter will disappear of itself. The indissolubility of marriage is partly a consequence of the economic situation in which monogamy arose, partly tradition from the period when the connection between this economic situation and monogamy was not yet fully understood and was carried to extremes under a religious form. Today it is already broken through at a thousand points. If only the marriage based on love is moral, then also only the marriage in which love continues. But the intense emotion of individual sex-love varies very much in duration from one individual to another, especially among men, and if affection definitely comes to an end or is supplanted by a new passionate love, separation is a benefit for both partners as well as for society – only people will then be spared having to wade through the useless mire of a divorce case.

All of this, take in consideration, going by negative, by subtracting rather than adding, and this is the distinction of every attempt to make credible forecasts on communist society, since communism is itself arisen not from affirmation, but from negation and destruction.

So, what picture do we get from this?
One, that men may be expected to be as loyal to their women as women were two centuries ago, and I would say that, "ideologically" and "rhetorically", men are already shamed enough for being disloyal, though there's still much left in the way of actually making partners loyal to each other.
Two, that despite this expectation of loyalty, there is essentially no compulsion in this kind of relationship, and either side is free to leave when it prefers, no reason to force the two together or it becomes really really toxic. Once again, we can compare this with the "schedule" in the real world, relations are very flexible today thanks to easy access to divorce (I would say too flexible for my tastes), they break easily. The major difference here is that, since the communist society is devoid of formalities like marriage contracts, the two would break up without any formal declaration of separation and eventually divorce. Just as they came together with no marriage, they would leave with no divorce. My personal consideration on this is that, despite the ease with which anyone could leave a partner, relations would remain way more stable than they are now, it would just be a much more carefree existence that would leave no room for pointless discussions such as the repayment of the husband's debts or whatever.
Third, and maybe the most important relative to your expectations: it would be monogamous, the purest kind. Why? Because, having taken out of the picture financial stability as a factor in the choice of a partner with the elimination of finance, the only real incentive to go after a partner is mutual attraction, physical and of character, and since this kind of love is by nature exclusive, as Friedrich himself admits, one would be compelled to be with one partner only at a time. Love, real love, is exclusive, it is desire for one person, you can't desire multiple partners at the same time and credibly claim that you love all of them, that's lust, not love.
 
If anyone can show me what's "Marxist" about cutting a kid's penis off or having buttsecks in public or racial quotas in movies or what have you, I'll fly to his home (provided I'm given the address) to suck his cock.
Intersectionalism, and the promotion of all these degenerate ideas, are just an expansion of the Marxist conception of class. Since Marx's class-war doctrine is fundamentally about ending the oppression of lower classes by the higher, privileged classes, minority groups can easily adopt Marxism as their ideology. Because Marxism has no underlying moral philosophy beyond class-warfare, there's nothing stopping the lower class from being massive sexual deviants. How anything be more proletarian, more lower class, than being in the ultra-small minority of people who cut their own cocks off?

That's essentially how some modern Marxists rationalize it, anyway. It's important to note that Weimar Berlin, which was effectively controlled by communists, boasted a great deal of sexual degeneracy - including, but not limited too, transgender 'research' and child prostitution.

First trans 'clinic', started by a gay jew named Magnus Hirschfeld: https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/the-forgotten-history-of-the-worlds-first-trans-clinic/
 
I feel like the term Cultural Marxism was invented as some kind of psyop since its a well known phenomena that there are lots of regular Marxists in the academic field. Whether or not this is a problem depends on your political persuasion, but what is completely undeniable is that they are there, we know who they are, and they are very open about their beliefs and points of view. They aren't hiding shit.

So why the fuck would people begin circulating a conspiracy theory that there is a secret Marxist agenda to reshape modern culture, and give it a nonsensical name on top of that (Cultural Marxism is redundant, Marxism already considers itself a cultural force inherently, the term is therefore meaningless), when the actual Marxist agenda is sitting right there, in plain sight, and will gladly identify itself and tell you everything it wants, to your face, when asked? Actual, confirmed western Marxists have gone on record saying some really stupid and horrible shit too, so its not like the out and proud ones are some kind of sanitized version of what's really going on behind the scenes. They're the real deal.

Next time someone tries to shill the idea that Cultural Marxism exists to you, I recommend you check what colors they're wearing, and deeply interrogate them about their background and their political convictions. I would hazard to guess that you will find an awful lot of inconsistencies in whatever they have to tell you.

I'm aware shills of this theory have tried to backpedal and say that its not much of a secret anymore, now that they sense more people are turning against the presence of Marxism in popular and academic culture, but bear in mind this idea was originally pitched as a conspiracy theory about a secret agenda, during an era when openly practicing Marxists clearly existed and were already accepted within western academia.
 
Intersectionalism, and the promotion of all these degenerate ideas, are just an expansion of the Marxist conception of class. Since Marx's class-war doctrine is fundamentally about ending the oppression of lower classes by the higher, privileged classes, minority groups can easily adopt Marxism as their ideology. Because Marxism has no underlying moral philosophy beyond class-warfare, there's nothing stopping the lower class from being massive sexual deviants. How anything be more proletarian, more lower class, than being in the ultra-small minority of people who cut their own cocks off?

That's essentially how some modern Marxists rationalize it, anyway. It's important to note that Weimar Berlin, which was effectively controlled by communists, boasted a great deal of sexual degeneracy - including, but not limited too, transgender 'research' and child prostitution.

First trans 'clinic', started by a gay jew named Magnus Hirschfeld: https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/the-forgotten-history-of-the-worlds-first-trans-clinic/

Like I already said, you can't say "They replaced the working class with freaks", it's just not how it works.
The "oppression" of the working class has a very specific basis, that is the fact that the value they produce is appropriated by their employer, but the value is the time of their lives. spent labouring for others rather than cultivating themselves.
The "oppression" of the working class is based around the fact that the overwhelming majority of people have to work for someone else rather than themselves, which is really the same as society as a whole since everyone is part of something called society, unless you live in the jungle as a hermit.
As the stage of history without classes, communism is reached through the self-abolition of the working class, in the measure in which it lends its time and labour to others anyway. We "fetishize" the working class not because it's the weakest link of the chain, but because it is a sterile plant that leaves no seeds after it. After this class is abolished (and the bourgeoisie with it because it's the bourgeoisie that creates the working class by employing men in return for wages), there's going to be no other classes.
You can't apply this reasoning to freaks because it is not the lending of their time and labor that defines them, and their "liberation", whatever it might look like, brings no new state of things, it won't change the way society works, and it won't stop them from remaining freaks.

Another key mistake here is that class warfare isn't Marxism's ethic or anything, it is seen as a feature of human societies throughout much of human history, but it doesn't encompass all of it. Primitive men knew no such thing as class, society was just not developed enough for it, and communism itself is classless, and thus devoid of class warfare.
Class warfare isn't even something Marx and Engels discovered, it's anterior to them by at least a century (Giambattista Vico talked about it), but these two attempted to theorize where it began, where it ended, why it existed.
Hell, I could argue that dialectical materialism itself would cease to be a relevant tool of social analysis in a communist society, because the factors required for that kind of analysis wouldn't exist. You don't use a boat forever, you just cross the river with it, and once you're on the opposite shore, you get down from it.
 
"Cultural Marxism" refers to pitting people against each other by divvying them up into groups of "oppressor" and "oppressed" classes like Marx did with economics with the bourgeoisie and proletariat. You've got "heterosexual" which is the oppressor class and "homosexual" the oppressed class. "Men" the oppressor class and "women" the oppressed class. "White people" the oppressor class and "minorities" the oppressed class. And so on, you get the picture. It's basically taking Marx's playbook for economics and applying it across various socio-cultural lines to divvy up a population and set them against the preferred groups.

Why do this? To destabilize nations so they become ripe for revolution and the implementation of communism. Now is every SJW who teaches these oppressor and oppressed dialectics identify as a "cultural marxist" or even recognize they're doing this? No, but it is an apt description of what they're doing whether or not it's intentional.
That's actually pretty good, but came way too late in the game to prevent it's watering down.
 
Like I already said, you can't say "They replaced the working class with freaks", it's just not how it works.
The "oppression" of the working class has a very specific basis, that is the fact that the value they produce is appropriated by their employer, but the value is the time of their lives. spent labouring for others rather than cultivating themselves.
The "oppression" of the working class is based around the fact that the overwhelming majority of people have to work for someone else rather than themselves, which is really the same as society as a whole since everyone is part of something called society, unless you live in the jungle as a hermit.
So? Ignoring the fact it's patently false, in a nutshell it's grievance politics where the working class feel like they have rights to the full value of the goods they produce which is utterly ridiculous. It's based on envy and resentment. In that way it's easy to see how easily it can be transposed on minority groups who feel like they're not getting their "fair share" because of cultural hedgemony of white people or whatever. Marxism isn't a cogent critique of capitalism in the first place so it's not a real surprise that it's not cogent when applied to other cultural spheres.
 
So? Ignoring the fact it's patently false,

How is it patently false? I have to dedicate time of my life, precious time of my life that I could spend in any other way, to some other asshole in order to survive. In this lies wage labor, having to be employed by someone else, lending your labor force to someone else. The theft of the value I produce is, ultimately, the theft of the time of my life.
In part I also touched this earlier, when I said that nobody can be fucked with making children anymore, because the job they never wanted takes most of their attentions and children are a huge burden that most people have next to no time for, by the time they return from work they just want to relax for a few hours in front of the tv or on the internet before going to bed and having another nine to five, rearing children is an intensive task. If this isn't theft of someone's life, preventing him from actually cultivating himself, his relation with his wife, setting up a fucking family and continuing his lineage, what is it?

in a nutshell it's grievance politics where the working class feel like they have rights to the full value of the goods they produce which is utterly ridiculous. It's based on envy and resentment. In that way it's easy to see how easily it can be transposed on minority groups who feel like they're not getting their "fair share" because of cultural hedgemony of white people or whatever. Marxism isn't a cogent critique of capitalism in the first place so it's not a real surprise that it's not cogent when applied to other cultural spheres.

Critique of the Gotha Program, actually Marx himself destroys the notion of full rights to the value of goods they produce.
Quoting:
1. "Labor is the source of wealth and all culture, and since useful labor is possible only in society and
through society, the proceeds of labor belong undiminished with equal right to all members of society."

This is a part of the Gotha Program he addresses. After going through the first two parts of the sentence, he gets to the "proceeds of labor part", and this is his rebuttal:
Thirdly, the conclusion: "Useful labor is possible only in society and through society, the proceeds of
labor belong undiminished with equal right to all members of society."
A fine conclusion! If useful labor is possible only in society and through society, the proceeds of labor
belong to society -- and only so much therefrom accrues to the individual worker as is not required to
maintain the "condition" of labor, society.
In fact, this proposition has at all times been made use of by the champions of the state of society
prevailing at any given time. First comes the claims of the government and everything that sticks to it,
since it is the social organ for the maintenance of the social order; then comes the claims of the various
kinds of private property, for the various kinds of private property are the foundations of society, etc.
One sees that such hollow phrases are the foundations of society, etc. One sees that such hollow phrases
can be twisted and turned as desired.

This is further addressed later on. Point three of the Program states:
3. "The emancipation of labor demands the promotion of the instruments of labor to the common
property of society and the co-operative regulation of the total labor, with a fair distribution of the
proceeds of labor.

Marx's rebuttal:
What are the "proceeds of labor"? The product of labor, or its value? And in the latter case, is it the total
value of the product, or only that part of the value which labor has newly added to the value of the means
of production consumed?
"Proceeds of labor" is a loose notion which Lassalle has put in the place of definite economic
conceptions.
What is "a fair distribution"?
Do not the bourgeois assert that the present-day distribution is "fair"? And is it not, in fact, the only "fair"
distribution on the basis of the present-day mode of production? Are economic relations regulated by
legal conceptions, or do not, on the contrary, legal relations arise out of economic ones? Have not also
the socialist sectarians the most varied notions about "fair" distribution?
To understand what is implied in this connection by the phrase "fair distribution", we must take the first
paragraph and this one together. The latter presupposes a society wherein the instruments of labor are
common property and the total labor is co-operatively regulated, and from the first paragraph we learn
that "the proceeds of labor belong undiminished with equal right to all members of society."
"To all members of society"? To those who do not work as well? What remains then of the
"undiminished" proceeds of labor? Only to those members of society who work? What remains then of
the "equal right" of all members of society?
But "all members of society" and "equal right" are obviously mere phrases. The kernel consists in this,
that in this communist society every worker must receive the "undiminished" Lassallean "proceeds of
labor".
Let us take, first of all, the words "proceeds of labor" in the sense of the product of labor; then the
co-operative proceeds of labor are the total social product.
From this must now be deducted: First, cover for replacement of the means of production used up.
Second, additional portion for expansion of production. Third, reserve or insurance funds to provide
against accidents, dislocations caused by natural calamities, etc.

These deductions from the "undiminished" proceeds of labor are an economic necessity, and their
magnitude is to be determined according to available means and forces, and partly by computation of
probabilities, but they are in no way calculable by equity.
There remains the other part of the total product, intended to serve as means of consumption.
Before this is divided among the individuals, there has to be deducted again, from it: First, the general
costs of administration not belonging to production. This part will, from the outset, be very considerably
restricted in comparison with present-day society, and it diminishes in proportion as the new society
develops. Second, that which is intended for the common satisfaction of needs, such as schools, health
services, etc. From the outset, this part grows considerably in comparison with present-day society, and it
grows in proportion as the new society develops. Third, funds for those unable to work, etc., in short, for
what is included under so-called official poor relief today.
Only now do we come to the "distribution" which the program, under Lassallean influence, alone has in
view in its narrow fashion -- namely, to that part of the means of consumption which is divided among
the individual producers of the co-operative society.
The "undiminished" proceeds of labor have already unnoticeably become converted into the
"diminished" proceeds, although what the producer is deprived of in his capacity as a private individual
benefits him directly or indirectly in his capacity as a member of society.
Just as the phrase of the "undiminished" proceeds of labor has disappeared, so now does the phrase of the
"proceeds of labor" disappear altogether.
Within the co-operative society based on common ownership of the means of production, the producers
do not exchange their products; just as little does the labor employed on the products appear here as the
value of these products, as a material quality possessed by them, since now, in contrast to capitalist
society, individual labor no longer exists in an indirect fashion but directly as a component part of total
labor. The phrase "proceeds of labor", objectionable also today on account of its ambiguity, thus loses all
meaning.

I mean, a good communist is the first one who doesn't believe in this demagogic spiel. It can't even really work.

"Or whatever" just shows you're grasping at straws there, throwing shit at the wall and expecting something to stick, except none of it does. Come up with a better argument, or don't.
Again, by seizing cultural hegemony, freaks won't cease being freaks and/or change society, you just end up with a society ran by them, indefinitely, but nothing of our condition changes.
The freak is a freak in absolute terms, the wage worker is such because he has a specific relation with another man (or group of people) that employs him, a relation that, when truncated, cancels both sides of the relationship. The freak won't stop being a freak by being in charge but the proletarian can and, by shedding his state of wage worker, liberates himself and the rest of society, I would argue even the former employers. You don't have to believe or accept this, I'm not here making proselytism or anything unless your fear is that, should you understand any of this shit, you would come to agree with it, but at least get what we're about before speaking from your ass.
Intersectionality lacks the dialectic that historical-dialectical materialism has. It's not about having two sides and having one "win" or "lose", this isn't how it works.


Once again, I invite you and everyone here to actually read Marx. Not the whole thing but at least:

  1. Theses on Feuerbach
  2. The German Ideology
  3. Principles of Communism
  4. The Communist Manifesto (I figure this is what a few here read, and the only thing they read on the subject, possibly without understanding a thing of it)
  5. Critique of the Gotha Program
  6. Socialism Utopian and Scientific

The first two and I would say the bulk of the sixth are introductions to the philosophy, the third and fourth are introductions to communism, and elements of the fourth together with the fifth and sixth also delineate what distinguishes Marx's conception of socialism from that of the leftists of his period, not all "socialisms" are the same.
It's an introduction not just to what actually is communism, but to the view of history and society we have, why we reach the conclusions we do and it isn't merely ooga booga oppression. Some moron here actually thinks that the "matter" in "dialectical-historical materialism" refers to atoms instead of, you know, man's life and how he relates to his fellows and to nature, his conditions. Dialectical-historical materialism is about people, not atoms.

I would say this is the kind of stuff anyone can finish within a day or two at most. It won't take much time of your life, and you will come out at least slightly more competent to discuss Marx, if you really want to discuss him.
 
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There are countless, straightforward refutations of the labor theory of value and Marx's bastard stepchild theory, surplus value. Interestingly, Marx's discrediting in academia seemed to happen in order of how data-driven the given field in. So he got nowhere in the hard sciences, then got pushed out of econ, next got killed off in history, finally seems to be on his last legs in philosophy, and only seems to hang around in English and Women's Studies these days. Of course, Women's Studies provides most HR personnel these days, so I guess the perverted old idler got the last laugh.

Anyway, the first time I became aware of "Marxian" to describe something other than the moronic economic theory in Das Kapital was when a friend of mine, who'd majored in women's studies, talked about how important "Marxian analysis" was to understanding relationships between the sexes. So yeah, "cultural Marxism" is real, and was a somewhat common term in academia, but of course now that people are noticing, it's getting renamed to "just studying why racism is bad" or whatever, not unlike how Marxist sociologists insisted that Marxist sociology was just "sociology," no modifiers.
 
So yeah, "cultural Marxism" is real, and was a somewhat common term in academia, but of course now that people are noticing, it's getting renamed to "just studying why racism is bad" or whatever, not unlike how Marxist sociologists insisted that Marxist sociology was just "sociology," no modifiers.
On an optimistic note: They managed to do that trick with "cultural Marxism" around 2014 (that's when they replaced the Wikipedia article), but last year they failed with CRT and Critical Theory in general. The terms did stick, and despite relentless media diarrhea about "just teaching history" they had to admit that they're indeed teaching and practising Critical Theory. Now they have to defend that, and it's really hard.
 
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On an optimistic note: They managed to do that trick with "cultural Marxism" around 2014 (that's when they replaced the Wikipedia article), but last year they failed with CRT and Critical Theory in general. The terms did stick, and despite relentless media diarrhea about "just teaching history" they had to admit that they're indeed teaching and practising Critical Theory. Now they have to defend that, and it's really hard.

I think it's because "critical theory" is the name they settled on and put in all their journal, textbook, and course titles. e.g.


Note that "criticism" is a Marxist concept. It has no relationship to "critical thinking." To be a "critical theorist" is to take basic concepts and approaches of Marxist literary criticism and recontextualize them:

 
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