I disagree on how much that matters.
I think it matters a whole lot. The Bible, all the way down to what even constitutes it, isn't just a collection of books that gives rise to an belief system-- in fact, it isn't even particularly that. It's a book of a community,
for that community, and principally needs to be understood in context of said community. It's said community that determined that A) these documents were representative of their belief, and B) these documents were given to them by the messengers of their faith. You can't unmoor said collection from a community and then talk about what it means; for example, the OT is rife with euphemisms-- the way that the Hebrew would describe circumcision could not, without the context of the community, be specifically understood as excising the foreskin; by itself, the description is vague enough that you could, if you wanted, interpret it as cutting skin off the nose instead. Paul in particular isn't just writing instruction manuals (the epistles we have are clearly non-exhaustive regarding the faith and don't instruct much on routine)-- he's writing principally to people that
knew him, and
knew what he meant.
Of course, for the purposes of this discussion, it wouldn't be worthwhile to discuss which community has the correct context to accurately understand Paul's letters, as well as the NT and OT overall. On the other hand, that wouldn't be necessary because there just isn't any Christian community that teaches or taught universal salvation until who knows how recently.
You would need to be willfully ignorant to believe that any religion throughout history doesn't interpret scripture in some way to suit itself.
This statement doesn't make any sense.
A religion isn't a person-- it's comprised of people that make up a community of adherents of that religion.
Secondly, assuming that you mean to speak of the presbytery and related parties, you're making a character assumption you can't wield, let alone prove. That's to say,
Thirdly, the exact same can be said of you, and there'd be more ground to it; that multiple communities, many of which disagree with each other, still agree on this matter doesn't just suggest that multiple communities agree on the matter, but it also alludes to there having been thousands of eyes on the verses you claim are demonstrations of Paul's belief in universal salvation for hundreds of years-- many who knew the language in which Paul wrote as their own, some even contemporaries of contemporaries of Paul (as opposed to hundreds of years away).
But they still come to the same conclusion-- that eternal damnation has always been a part of orthodox eschatology, and was taught by the apostles.
Meanwhile, you betray much that would suggest that you take this position to "suit [yourself]"-- as increasingly meaningless as it may be in protracted discussions to throw scriptural citation after scriptural citation, you yourself don't bother to start with what's actually said, but rather citations of God's character and stated intentions according to the scriptures, and then you reason from there that "if God
wants all to be saved, then
all indeed will be saved"...
...to the exclusion of various rejoinders Jesus gives in his parables about the unworthy being cast into the darkness where there's weeping and gnashing of teeth (Matthew 8:12, 13:42, 13:50, 22:13, 24:51, 25:30; Luke 13:28), Jesus' warning that the unrighteous-- even some who call him "Lord"-- will be renounced in the Final Judgment (Matthew 7:21-23), Paul's enumerations about who will
not inherit the kingdom of God (1 Corinthians 6:9-10) and even Paul's fears about himself failing to do what he seeks to lead others to accomplish (1 Corinthians 9:27). Why would he worry about this nearly as much as he does if everybody has no choice
but to be saved?
Others read these repeated warnings (and more) and come to the conclusion that eternal damnation for the unrighteous is warned, and yet they're just interpreting their scriptures to "suit themselves" (even though they'd be better suited, naturally, to
not have to worry about the risk of eternal damnation or scare people away with the rejoinders for active piety). But you read other verses (seemingly without reading the ones I've just mentioned) and come to the conclusion of something ultimately easier to not only swallow, but practice, and you're the one that's not operating in the way you accuse others of doing?
We'll have to respectfully disagree on that then I suppose. Still, I don't understand how verses like 1 Corinthians 15:22 or Romans 5: 15-21 can be read any other way than to say that all will be saved.
I didn't know that the entirety of the Pauline corpus consisted of 1 Corinthians 15:22 and Romans 5:15-21 and that there was no surrounding context to these verses. I also wasn't aware that these verses were specially conceived in and continue to exist in a timeless void, devoid of any surrounding context, without hundreds-- if not thousands-- of consonant discussions of said verses to refer to.
I'll also ignore Romans 5:18 where it interchanges "many" and "all" for paralleling purposes, and that hyperbole isn't a foreign concept to Paul (e.g. 1 Corinthians 13:1-3).
As you say though, splitting hairs won't get us anywhere. I just want to leave you with some of the implications of eternal damnation. God desires to save all (Ezekiel 18:23, Matthew 23:37, 2 Peter 3:9), God has the power to save all (Job 42:2, Psalm 115:3, Matthew 19:26) and Jesus was sent to save all and reconcile all of creation to God (John 4:42, Luke 15:3–10, Romans 11:15). If even a handful are damned then God's will is unfulfilled and Jesus failed.
I reject your conclusion.
Throughout the scriptures, it's constantly demonstrated that God allows man to choose. God allowed Adam and Eve to eat of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil, after they were warned by Him that they would die if they did. He allowed Cain to murder Abel. He allowed the evil of man to mount enough to warrant Him cleansing the earth. And he allowed Israel to repeatedly turn away from Him to other gods, to their detriment, even after He warned them of the consequences.
He
wanted Adam and Eve to not eat of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. He
didn't want Cain to murder Abel. He
didn't want that man pile up their sins so greatly that He "had to decide" to wipe nearly all of them out. And He
didn't want Israel to repeatedly turn away from Him to other gods. We know this because His desires would be demonstrated in the commandments He gave.
Ultimately, He gives man freedom of choice. In the OT, the covenant that God made with Israel
was their salvation, however incomplete it was, and they repeatedly spurned it. With your first and second premises, will you then say that God failed because many Israelites perished when they perished
of their own volition? Fundamentally, has He failed mankind by allowing Adam and Eve to bring suffering and death upon creation?
No. Because inherent to any of His desires for mankind are that
they want what
He wants, and if they
don't, then that's to
their detriment. God
chose to provide salvation for mankind in this way-- how does He fail if not everyone is saved? Did He ever indicate any expectation that all would have faith in Him that was defied?
Also baked into your stance is a necessary belief that "Heaven" and "Hell" are only "the Good Place" and "the Bad Place", respectively, rather than the future you chose and your disposition to a God you are truly unable to hide from at that point. Will God coerce a soul into giving what can only be freely given despite their desire to not do so? Because being "in Heaven" isn't just about being in a location, which is why it's only promised to the righteous.
If salvation occurs through faith alone and that faith must be in this life then the vast majority of all humans who have ever lived and currently live will be eternally damned.
You don't know that, and the proper Christian understanding is that that's not in any man's paygrade to say (since we don't even know that of ourselves until we get to that point, and we don't know about the disposition of the deceased at the time of their death)-- that's a decision that's ultimately God's.
Also, all that Jesus said about saving sinners, acting as doctor to the sick, and as a Good Shepherd? That all gets disregarded as soon as you die. At the end of time, the Good Shepard won't save his lost sheep but instead torture them endlessly.
At that point,
they're not His sheep-- they're goats (Matthew 25:31-46).
Also, we're not even just talking about a handful.
It doesn't matter how many we're talking about. Jesus outright says that the way to destruction is wide and many go through it, but the way to life is narrow and few take it. (Matthew 7:13).
God wishes to save all but instead chooses to eternally torment those who he didn't save rather than give a second chance.
Jesus asserts through his parable of "Lazarus and the Rich Man" that there would be numerous chances even for the living, but the issue isn't the amount of chances they have but how they've chosen to live their lives that prevents them from listening even to someone they knew rose from the dead (Luke 16:27-31).
Despite wanting to save all yet only doing so through faith, God does not show himself to all people so all would be saved.
"Faith" in God isn't merely acknowledging that God exists-- it's recognizing Him for who He is and trusting Him in that capacity. It wouldn't matter if He showed Himself to other people-- that wouldn't ensure that everyone would then have faith in Him.
God forgives all who are truly penitent yet only before they die, after that he's content to torment them endlessly.
You presume that God's the one doing the torturing, rather than the spiritual distance of the unrighteous soul from God.