Why is Western Europe separate from Eastern Europe?

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Haffhart

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All of Europe is divided into three parts; of which the Germanic peoples inhabit one, the Latin peoples another, and the Slavic peoples a third (the standalone peoples aren't human and don't count). The Latins (Latinos?) and Germanics bound together and expanded, forming "The West" - but why were the Slavs left out, not conquered or an equal partner themselves?
 
The Latins (Latinos?) and Germanics bound together and expanded, forming "The West"
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no they didn't. the western alliance of france and england violently subjugated the germanics, broke them, and turned them into their vassal state, which they remain to this day.

even the french+english "west" itself is a pretty recent phenomenon. up until well into the 1800s, britain was very separate from the continental powers, and there's a very long history of animosity and warfare between france and england.
 
DumbDude42 dijo:
no they didn't. the western alliance of france and england violently subjugated the germanics, broke them, and turned them into their vassal state, which they remain to this day.

even the french+english "west" itself is a pretty recent phenomenon. up until well into the 1800s, britain was very separate from the continental powers, and there's a very long history of animosity and warfare between france and england.
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Yeah "bound together" is putting it in rough and general terms, I try to keep these short.
 
There's been a divided East/West in Europe since the Roman Empire (which was two empires closely joined).

In fact there was a long stretch in which the West was the backward part and the East was very decadent, though very warlike due to the muslim invaders to the South/East of them.
 
The big difference I'd say is access to the Atlantic Ocean. This became a big deal from 1492 onwards, as it meant that Spain, France, Britain, etc. could form great overseas empires while Italy, Greece, etc. were stuck within the Mediterranean. Russia didn't even have that, being stuck with the Black Sea and the Baltic Sea which were even less valuable. Considering its starting position Russia has done pretty well, Siberia and Central Asia were really the Russian equivalent of what North America and Australia were to Britain.
 
During the medieval period, the distinction between the west and the east can largely be chalked down to culture and religion. I wouldn't say the west at that period was every really politically "unified," but the thread that "held the west together" was Catholicism.

Though what I think you're talking about specifically is the modern political division of Europe, which has more to do with the division of the USSR and NATO than any kind of racial unity between the Latins and Germanics.
 
Well Europe as a concept only grew out of the Crusades- not that it necessarily united the continent, but it did give it its Christian identity apart from the Muslim territories to the east of the Adriatic and North Africa.
 
This is a very over-simplified take and the actual issue is a lot more complex and detailed, but here's the short version.

The whole "East/West" divide began in the later years of the Roman Empire, the more Latin West and the Greek East.

In the Middle Ages and Early Modern Period, it was more due to the Latin, Germanic, and Celtic peoples in Western Europe adhering to Western Christianity (Catholics, Protestants) while the Slavic and Greek parts of Europe adhered to the Eastern Orthodox Christian denominations.

In the latter half of the 20th Century, it was largely influenced by the Cold War.
 
The Great Schism certainly affected it, and the Danube is a natural dividing point.
 
To clarify greatly; the first division between East and west started with Diocletian, who formed the Roman tetrachy, in which there were four rulers, two Augustuses (or emperors, for West and East) and two minor rulers. This failed, but came back after Theodosious I split it again between two sons. The rest of European history grew from this distinction.
 
why were the Slavs left out, not conquered or an equal partner themselves?
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Ever since the 2nd world war they have been one of the mayor players on the world stage. Soviets have been "more equal" than spain, italy, germany, for almost a 100 years at this point.

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As for the idea that the latins and germanics bounded together.... it's more that america conquered and controlled europe since world war 2. The US took over the previous British doctrine that a divided europe, meant they remained a global oceanic power. This is why US constantly pressures for russian/west european conflict, because it means US dominance.
 
Because eastern european men will go gay for pay at a far lower price than the west.

After being subject or influenced by the Ottomans and Byzantine Greeks for as long as they were they've got plenty of experience in taking things up their ass. Never forget that the Aegean invented gayness.
 
Beautiful Border dijo:
The big difference I'd say is access to the Atlantic Ocean. This became a big deal from 1492 onwards, as it meant that Spain, France, Britain, etc. could form great overseas empires while Italy, Greece, etc. were stuck within the Mediterranean. Russia didn't even have that, being stuck with the Black Sea and the Baltic Sea which were even less valuable. Considering its starting position Russia has done pretty well, Siberia and Central Asia were really the Russian equivalent of what North America and Australia were to Britain.
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IIRC a philosopher from the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth toured W. Europe in the mid-1600s, and was able to perceive a growing disparity in economic development, where within living memory there had been none, between them and his homeland. By the end of the same century the Russians were inviting Westerners in to help them "catch up".
 
Syaoran Li dijo:
This is a very over-simplified take and the actual issue is a lot more complex and detailed, but here's the short version.

The whole "East/West" divide began in the later years of the Roman Empire, the more Latin West and the Greek East.

In the Middle Ages and Early Modern Period, it was more due to the Latin, Germanic, and Celtic peoples in Western Europe adhering to Western Christianity (Catholics, Protestants) while the Slavic and Greek parts of Europe adhered to the Eastern Orthodox Christian denominations.

In the latter half of the 20th Century, it was largely influenced by the Cold War.
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Large part of eastern Europe is catholic, Poland became catholic in 13th century. Then there is Czechia and Slovakia.
 
Spiritually Sodomized dijo:
Because eastern european men will go gay for pay at a far lower price than the west.

After being subject or influenced by the Ottomans and Byzantine Greeks for as long as they were they've got plenty of experience in taking things up their ass. Never forget that the Aegean invented gayness.
Presiona para expandir...

Having a furry as your avatar, "sodomized" in your nickname and typing about taking things up the ass really does suggest repressed homosexuality. It's 2022 and it's okay to be gay my friend.

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